Physical Assessment Quiz

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Physical Assessment Quiz - Quiz

Get ready to test your knowledge of physical assessment with our comprehensive quiz! This quiz will challenge your understanding of essential concepts in healthcare evaluation. From understanding vital signs and heart sounds to recognizing abnormal lung and bowel sounds, you'll dive into various aspects of physical assessment. The quiz comprises a series of scenarios that mirror real-life medical situations, testing your ability to perform accurate assessments of patients' vital signs, general health, and specific conditions.

Whether you're a medical student, a healthcare professional, or simply curious about the art of physical assessment, this quiz offers an insightful and interactive learning Read moreexperience. This quiz aims to not only evaluate your proficiency in assessing patients' health but also expand your understanding of the various aspects of physical evaluation. Whether you're a healthcare professional, student, or simply interested in enhancing your medical knowledge, this quiz will put your physical assessment expertise to the test. Take the quiz and elevate your proficiency in performing thorough physical assessments.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The consumption of alcohol, tobacco, caffeine, or herbal products is vital in health history and is part of what?

    • A.

      Illegal activity

    • B.

      Habits and lifestyle patterns

    • C.

      Fun and pleasure

    • D.

      Rest and recreation

    Correct Answer
    B. Habits and lifestyle patterns
  • 2. 

    Which of the following are true regarding cultural sensitivity

    • A.

      All members of one cultural group behave in exactly the same manner

    • B.

      As a nurse, it is important to identify and examine our own cultural and ethnic beliefs

    • C.

      Cultural and ethnic diversity have no impact in health care

    • D.

      Patient's response to signs and symptoms are independent of their cultural values

    Correct Answer
    B. As a nurse, it is important to identify and examine our own cultural and ethnic beliefs
  • 3. 

    We know that the nurse knows the right time to do a physical assessment when she says:

    • A.

      "I will do it as soon as possible"

    • B.

      "I think the next shift will have to do it"

    • C.

      "After I give the medication"

    • D.

      "Maybe later, when I am done with others"

    Correct Answer
    A. "I will do it as soon as possible"
    Explanation
    When a nurse responds with "I will do it as soon as possible," it suggests a recognition of the urgency in conducting a physical assessment without unnecessary delay. This proactive approach ensures timely evaluation and appropriate intervention, promoting patient well-being and efficient healthcare delivery.

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  • 4. 

    The difference between a "head to toe" assessment and a "focused assessment"

    • A.

      Head to toe is systemic while focused concentrates on regional parts

    • B.

      Head to toe is completed when the patient is admitted; focused concentrates on a particular part of a body

    • C.

      Head to toe is done on every shift while focused is done when the person is admitted

    • D.

      Both RN's and LPN's should do head to toe assessments as well as focused assessments

    Correct Answer
    B. Head to toe is completed when the patient is admitted; focused concentrates on a particular part of a body
  • 5. 

    • The nurse tells a 75-year-old patient that she will have to do a "head to toe" assessment on him. The patient asks, "what is that"? Her best answer would be?

    • A.

      I will need to determine the etiology of any pathologic symptoms you might have.

    • B.

      Oh nothing, it is just something that we do.

    • C.

      It is a way for us to know how we are going to take care of you later.

    • D.

      Maybe you can tell me how you got here.

    Correct Answer
    C. It is a way for us to know how we are going to take care of you later.
    Explanation
    When talking to older adults simplicity, clarity and directness of response are more fundamental than conveying detailed information that they might not grasp or get confused by. 

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  • 6. 

    A person who is just being admitted complains of pain in his right foot. What is the proper way to provide this patient with an accurate physical assessment? 

    • A.

      Do a focused assessment on foot first and do the complete physical examination later

    • B.

      If a complete physical assessment is necessary, it is best to assess any painful areas last.

    • C.

      Focus on the pain and provide comfort before anything else.

    • D.

      Since the patient is a new admit, concentrate on the general physical assessment only

    Correct Answer
    A. Do a focused assessment on foot first and do the complete physical examination later
    Explanation
    Perform a focused assessment on the patient's right foot, examining for any signs of swelling, redness, or tenderness. This will help determine the cause of the pain and guide appropriate interventions for effective pain management, treatment and need for further physical examination.

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  • 7. 

    In the interview portion of the physical assessment, there is no need to wash our hands since we are not touching the patient. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Always wash your hands before beginning the physical assessment. The interview portion is only a portion of the physical assessment. After or during the interview, the rest of the physical assessment process will require contact.

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  • 8. 

    Before the beginning of a physical examination, to make the patient more comfortable, what should be done first

    • A.

      Give patient a warm blanket

    • B.

      Ask if patient wants a glass of water

    • C.

      Offer patient to empty his/her bladder

    • D.

      Provide a small

    Correct Answer
    C. Offer patient to empty his/her bladder
    Explanation
    Before initiating a physical examination, it's recommended to offer the patient the opportunity to empty their bladder. This not only enhances their comfort during the examination but also ensures accurate assessment results by minimizing discomfort or urgency during the process.

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  • 9. 

    When performing a head-to-toe assessment, we usually begin with a neurologic evaluation. What is the next? 

    • A.

      Skin, hair, head, and neck, including eyes, ear, nose, and mouth

    • B.

      Chest, back, arm, abdomen

    • C.

      Perineal area, legs, and feet

    • D.

      Eyes and ears alone

    Correct Answer
    A. Skin, hair, head, and neck, including eyes, ear, nose, and mouth
    Explanation
    After the neurologic evaluation, the assessment proceeds to examine the skin, hair, head, and neck. This thorough examination aids in detecting any abnormalities and provides a holistic understanding of your health status for effective care planning.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following are included in the neurologic assessment?

    • A.

      Motor function

    • B.

      Range of motion

    • C.

      Level of consciousness

    • D.

      Pupillary response

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Motor function
    C. Level of consciousness
    D. Pupillary response
  • 11. 

    PERRLA refers to:

    • A.

      Motor function

    • B.

      Order of assessment

    • C.

      Level of consciousness

    • D.

      Pupillary response

    Correct Answer
    D. Pupillary response
  • 12. 

    A neurologic examination about the sensations of body movements and awareness of posture and cerebellar function.

    • A.

      Deep tendon reflexes

    • B.

      Coordination and Sensory Examination

    • C.

      Cranial nerve assessment

    • D.

      Pupillary reflex

    Correct Answer
    B. Coordination and Sensory Examination
    Explanation
    A neurologic examination about the sensations of body movements, awareness of posture, and cerebellar function is called a "Coordination and Sensory Examination". This assessment evaluates a person's ability to sense different types of sensations, coordinate movements, and maintain posture, providing insights into their nervous system health and function.

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  • 13. 

    Vital signs are reliable even when there is a central nervous system deficit. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Vital signs can be influenced by central nervous system deficits, potentially leading to inaccurate readings. Conditions affecting the central nervous system, such as head injuries, strokes, or certain medications, may impact the body's ability to regulate vital functions like heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate.

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  • 14. 

    What do the signs and symptoms of Cushing's triad include? They are typical of someone who had a traumatic brain injury. 

    • A.

      Increase in systolic blood pressure

    • B.

      Bradycardia

    • C.

      Irregular breathing pattern

    • D.

      Widening pulse pressure

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Bradycardia
    C. Irregular breathing pattern
    D. Widening pulse pressure
  • 15. 

    Standardized objective measurement of the level of consciousness is do through:

    • A.

      Glasgow Coma Scale

    • B.

      PERRLA

    • C.

      Rhomberg Test

    • D.

      Motor function assessment

    Correct Answer
    A. Glasgow Coma Scale
  • 16. 

    A patient has just been admitted. During physical assessment, it was observed that patient had decreased skin turgor and dried outer lips. What would be the most appropriate thing to offer this patient while the physical assessment is going on?

    • A.

      A chair to sit on

    • B.

      Medication

    • C.

      Water

    • D.

      Some snacks

    Correct Answer
    C. Water
    Explanation
    The patient is showing signs of dehydration as manifested by decreased skin turgor so it will be most appropriate and helpful to offer them some water and advise them to get more hydrated. 

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  • 17. 

    A patient with increased turgor in his lower extremities manifested by smooth, taut, shiny skin that cannot be grasped or raised is most likely to have: 

    • A.

      Enema

    • B.

      Decubitus

    • C.

      Edema

    • D.

      Infection

    Correct Answer
    C. Edema
    Explanation
    A patient with increased turgor in their lower extremities, characterized by smooth, taut, shiny skin that cannot be easily grasped or raised, is most likely experiencing edema. Edema is the accumulation of excess fluid in the body's tissues, leading to swelling and changes in skin texture. It can be caused by various factors, including circulatory issues, heart failure, kidney problems, or local inflammation.

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  • 18. 

    Abnormal swishing sounds are heard over organs, glands, and arteries and result from an abnormality in an artery resulting from narrow or partially occluded arteries such as atherosclerosis.

    • A.

      Thrill

    • B.

      Crackles

    • C.

      Bruits

    • D.

      Wheezes

    Correct Answer
    C. Bruits
  • 19. 

    A vibrating sensation perceived when an artery is palpated and is not expected when examining a carotid pulse. 

    • A.

      Bruit

    • B.

      Thrill

    • C.

      Crackles

    • D.

      Rhonci

    Correct Answer
    B. Thrill
    Explanation
    A vibrating sensation perceived when an artery is palpated, which is not expected when examining a carotid pulse, is referred to as a "thrill". Thrills are often associated with turbulent blood flow, such as in cases of heart murmurs or vascular abnormalities, and can provide important diagnostic information during a physical examination.

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  • 20. 

    An abnormal respiration cycle begins with slow, shallow respiration that becomes rapid, then becomes slower, followed by periods of apnea (20 seconds)—usually caused by heart failure, opioid overdose, renal failure, meningitis, and severe headache. 

    • A.

      Kussmaul

    • B.

      Cheyne-stokes

    • C.

      Botte's

    • D.

      Whooping sneeze

    Correct Answer
    B. Cheyne-stokes
  • 21. 

    What is indicative of acute or chronic respiratory distress?

    • A.

      Height

    • B.

      Posture

    • C.

      Weight

    • D.

      Hair loss

    Correct Answer
    B. Posture
    Explanation
    Posture can indicate acute or chronic respiratory distress. Leaning forward with hands on knees, known as "tripod position," is common in acute distress, allowing better chest expansion. Chronic distress might lead to a hunched posture to ease breathing.

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  • 22. 

    Teaching patients to perform breast self-exams is only directly related to females.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Breast self-exams are relevant for both males and females as they involve regularly checking the breasts and surrounding areas for any unusual lumps, changes in size or shape, or other abnormalities. Early detection through self-exams can aid in identifying potential breast health issues, irrespective of gender, and prompt seeking medical advice if necessary.

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  • 23. 

    When auscultating for lung sounds, which part of the stethoscope is designed to transmit the higher pitch of abnormal sounds?

    • A.

      Ear piece

    • B.

      Bell

    • C.

      Diaphragm

    • D.

      Tubes

    Correct Answer
    C. Diaphragm
  • 24. 

    When doing a respiratory assessment to a patient, which of the following is the most appropriate technique? 

    • A.

      Use a stethoscope over the clothing of a patient who feels cold

    • B.

      Instruct patient to breathe through his or her mouth quietly and more deeply and slowly than in a usual respiration

    • C.

      Allow a patient with a slight lower back pain to lie supine on bed

    • D.

      Listen to the heart sound at the same time that your are listening to the lung sounds

    Correct Answer
    B. Instruct patient to breathe through his or her mouth quietly and more deeply and slowly than in a usual respiration
    Explanation
    When instructing a patient for respiratory assessment, guide them to breathe quietly through their mouth with deeper and slower breaths than their usual pace. This instruction helps ensure a thorough examination of lung sounds, allowing for the detection of any abnormal sounds such as wheezing or crackles during the auscultation process.

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  • 25. 

    When auscultating for lung sounds, place the stethoscope firmly and tightly on the skin, and listen for one full inspiratory-expiratory cycle at each point.  

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
  • 26. 

    Rubbing, grating or squeaky sound upon auscultation; as if two pieces of leather are being rubbed together is called:

    • A.

      Pulmonary friction

    • B.

      Pleural friction rub

    • C.

      Pulmonary bruising

    • D.

      Whooping cough

    Correct Answer
    B. Pleural friction rub
    Explanation
    The rubbing, grating, or squeaky sound heard upon auscultation, resembling the sound of two pieces of leather being rubbed together, is called "pleural friction rub." This sound is often indicative of inflammation or irritation of the pleural lining of the lungs. It can be associated with conditions such as pleurisy, pneumonia, or certain lung infections, and its presence warrants further medical evaluation.

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  • 27. 

    Exaggeration of the posterior curvature of the thoracic spine is called:

    • A.

      Spina Bifida

    • B.

      Kyphosis

    • C.

      Lordosis

    • D.

      Scoliosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Kyphosis
  • 28. 

    A swayback, an increased lumbar curvature is called:

    • A.

      Spina Bifida

    • B.

      Kyphosis

    • C.

      Lordosis

    • D.

      Scoliosis

    Correct Answer
    C. Lordosis
    Explanation
    An increased lumbar curvature resulting in a swayback appearance is known as "lordosis." Lordosis is a condition where the lower back curves inward more than usual, causing the buttocks to protrude. It can be influenced by factors such as poor posture, obesity, pregnancy, or certain medical conditions affecting the spine.

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  • 29. 

    Lateral spinal curvature is called:

    • A.

      Spina Bifida

    • B.

      Kyphosis

    • C.

      Lordosis

    • D.

      Scoliosis

    Correct Answer
    D. Scoliosis
    Explanation
    Lateral spinal curvature is called "scoliosis." Scoliosis is a condition characterized by an abnormal sideways curvature of the spine. It can occur in various degrees of severity and might be congenital or develop during growth. Treatment depends on the severity and cause of the scoliosis and can range from observation to bracing or surgery in more severe cases.

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  • 30. 

    Lubb-dubb is caused by:

    • A.

      Closure of the atrioventricular and semilunar valves respectively

    • B.

      Closure of the semilunar and atrioventricular valves respectively

    • C.

      Closure of the atrioventricular and semilunar valves simultaneously

    • D.

      Closure of the atrioventricular valve and opening of the semilunar valve respectively

    Correct Answer
    A. Closure of the atrioventricular and semilunar valves respectively
    Explanation
    "Lubb-dubb" refers to the sounds heard during a heartbeat and is caused by the closing of heart valves. "Lubb" (first sound) sound is produced by the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves (atrioventricular valves) when the ventricles contract to pump blood into the arteries. "Dubb" (second sound) sound is created by the closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves (semilunar valves) when the ventricles relax and begin to fill with blood again.

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  • 31. 

    The first normal heart sound S1 occurs when? 

    • A.

      Closure of the AV valves and signals the start of systole

    • B.

      Closure of the AV valves and signals the end of systole

    • C.

      Opening of the AV valves and signals the start of systole

    • D.

      Opening of the AV valves and signlas the end of systole

    Correct Answer
    A. Closure of the AV valves and signals the start of systole
  • 32. 

    Where is S1 auscultated most clearly?

    • A.

      Apex of the heart

    • B.

      Base of heart

    • C.

      Around the heart

    • D.

      All over the heart

    Correct Answer
    A. Apex of the heart
    Explanation
    The first heart sound, S1, is most clearly auscultated (heard) over the apex of the heart. The apex is located at the lower left side of the chest, near the fifth intercostal space, around the midclavicular line. This is the point where the mitral valve, one of the valves responsible for creating the S1 sound, is best heard during auscultation.

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  • 33. 

    When does normal heart sound S2 occur?

    • A.

      With the closure of the AV valve and signals the end of systole

    • B.

      With the opening of the AV valve and signals opening of systole

    • C.

      With the opening of the semilunar valves and signals the beginning of systole.

    • D.

      With the closure of the semilunar valves and signals the end of systole

    Correct Answer
    D. With the closure of the semilunar valves and signals the end of systole
  • 34. 

    Heard in patients with coronary artery disease after MI (myocardial infarction), heard late in diastole when the atria contracts. 

    • A.

      S1

    • B.

      S2

    • C.

      S3

    • D.

      S4

    Correct Answer
    D. S4
    Explanation
    The heart sound described is "S4", which is a low-frequency sound heard late in diastole when the atria contract. This sound is often referred to as an "atrial gallop" and is not commonly heard in healthy individuals. It can be associated with conditions such as coronary artery disease, especially after a myocardial infarction (MI), as well as other heart conditions like hypertensive heart disease.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following is not a peripheral pulse?

    • A.

      Ulnar

    • B.

      Femoral

    • C.

      Brachial

    • D.

      Humoral

    Correct Answer
    D. Humoral
    Explanation
    "Humoral pulse" is not a term used to refer to a peripheral pulse. The term "humoral" usually relates to the body's fluids or substances, such as hormones, present in the bloodstream. A peripheral pulse, on the other hand, refers to the pulse felt at various points in the body's peripheral arteries, such as the wrist (radial pulse) or neck (carotid pulse).

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  • 36. 

    This happens when there is a decreased supply of oxygenated blood to the tissues often caused by a narrowing of an artery.

    • A.

      Ischemia

    • B.

      Claudication

    • C.

      Hypoventilation

    • D.

      Atelactesis

    Correct Answer
    A. Ischemia
    Explanation
    The situation described occurs when there is a "hypoxia" or reduced supply of oxygenated blood to the tissues. This condition is often caused by "ischemia," which is a narrowing or restriction of blood flow in an artery, leading to insufficient oxygen delivery to the tissues. Ischemia can result from various factors such as atherosclerosis, blood clots, or arterial spasms.

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  • 37. 

    Cramp-like pain in the lower extremities usually after walking is called:

    • A.

      Ischemia

    • B.

      Claudication

    • C.

      Hypoventilation

    • D.

      Atelactesis

    Correct Answer
    B. Claudication
  • 38. 

    In person with good cardiac function and distal perfusion, how long should a capillary refill take place?   

    • A.

      Less than 3 seconds

    • B.

      More than 3 seconds

    • C.

      More than 5 seconds

    • D.

      Around 5 seconds

    Correct Answer
    A. Less than 3 seconds
    Explanation
    In a person with good cardiac function and distal perfusion, a capillary refill time of 3 seconds or less is considered normal. Capillary refill time is a simple clinical test used to assess peripheral perfusion and circulation. When the fingertip is blanched by applying pressure, the time it takes for the color to return to the nail bed gives an indication of how quickly blood is reaching the capillaries and tissues.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is not a symptom? 

    • A.

      Soreness

    • B.

      Pruritus

    • C.

      Flatus

    • D.

      Pain

    Correct Answer
    C. Flatus
    Explanation
    Occasional gas is seen as normal and not an indication of an underlaying condition. If excessive flatus is causing discomfort or is accompanied by other concerning symptoms like abdominal pain, changes in bowel habits, or weight loss, it's advisable to consult a healthcare professional for proper evaluation and diagnosis.

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  • 40. 

    Two significant alterations in bowel sounds:

    • A.

      Hyperactive and hypoactive bowel sounds

    • B.

      Loud and quiet bowel sounds

    • C.

      Fetid and scentless bowel sounds

    • D.

      Noisy and loud bowel sounds

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperactive and hypoactive bowel sounds
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